VCP-310 Real Exam Questions or Full Refund

Q: 1 Which is a valid traffic shaping adjustment?
A. average bandwidth adjusted in Kbps
B. average bandwidth adjusted in Mbps
C. maximum bandwidth adjusted in Kbps
D. maximum bandwidth adjusted in Mbps
E. burst bandwidth adjusted in Kbps
Answer: A

Q: 2 Which three attributes can you specify when VCP-310 creating a resource pool for CPU or Memory? (Choose three.)
A. Reservation
B. Limited
C. Number of shares
D. Limit
E. Maximum bandwidth
Answer: A, C, D

Q: 3 Which statement is true about VirtualCenter and the License Server?
A. VirtualCenter cannot be installed without an operational License Server online.
B. If deploying a License Server is not desirable, VirtualCenter can be installed using a host-based license file.
C. The License Server must be installed during VirtualCenter installation and must always run on the same server as VirtualCenter.
D. The License Server may be installed on a separate machine, but VirtualCenter requires a server-based license.
Answer: D

Q: 4 Which statement is true about resource pools?
A. They may contain one or more child VMware HA clusters.
B. They may contain one or more child resource pools.
C. They may aggregate groups of resource pools.
D. They may contain one or more child DRS clusters.
Answer: B

Q: 5 Which statement is true about running an ESX Server virtual machine on a CIFS share?
A. ESX Server must be granted as a trusted member of the CIFS server.
B. ESX Server does not support datastore on CIFS.
C. ESX Server requires gigabit Ethernet adapter in order for CIFS to be used as datastore.
D. ESX Server must be on the same LAN as the CIFS server.
Answer: B

Q: 6 A user has been given access to VirtualCenter using the Virtual Infrastructure Client to administer virtual machines. What else can the user do?
A. log on to the VirtualCenter server
B. log on to any ESX Server managed by VirtualCenter
C. log on to the VirtualCenter server if an administrator grants the Permit Web Access privilege
D. log on to the VirtualCenter server and any ESX Server managed by VirtualCenter
Answer: A

Q: 7 What must be done to allow customization of Windows virtual machines that are deployed from templates?
A. The location of the sysprep.exe must be specified in config.ini.
B. Nothing needs to be done as the VirtualCenter installer automatically locates and installs Sysprep components.
C. Sysprep must be downloaded from Microsoft and installed on the VirtualCenter server.
D. A sysprep.inf file must be created in a text editor and imported using the customization wizard.
Answer: C

Q: 8 Which three statements are true about shared storage capabilities on NFS volumes supported by ESX Server? (Choose three.)
A. You can use VMotion.
B. You can create VMFS datastore on NFS mounted volumes.
C. You can create virtual machines on NFS mounted volumes.
D. You can boot virtual machines stored on NFS mounted volumes.
E. You can configure ESX Server to boot from NFS mounted volumes.
Answer: A, C, D

Q: 9 A company decides to use a license server for a newly installed Virtual Infrastructure. The infrastructure consists of one VirtualCenter server and two ESX Server hosts, each with two dual core CPUs. DRS, VMware HA and VMotion will be used on all hosts.
How many license files need to be installed on the license server?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. 7
E. 25
Answer: A

Q: 10 Which two statements are true about virtual switches in ESX Server? (Choose two.)
A. Virtual switches can be created with or without physical NICs.
B. Virtual switches cannot be created without physical NICs.
C. A VMotion port group must not be created on a virtual switch used for virtual machine traffic.
D. A service console port group can be created on a virtual switch used for virtual machine traffic.
Answer: A, D

Q: 11 In a resource-constrained environment, which ESX Server memory conservation technique has the LEAST negative effect on the performance of a running virtual machine?
A. vmmemctl
B. using the .vswp file
C. Transparent Page Sharing
D. lowering the Reservation variable
Answer: C

Q: 12 Which three tasks can a Resource Pool Administrator perform? (Choose three.)
A. create a new virtual machine in the resource pool
B. change the resource pool resource limits
C. create a new template from a virtual machine
D. modify assigned licenses
E. add a port group to a virtual switch
Answer: A, B, C

Q: 13 A company decides to replace one 8-CPU host with four dual-CPU hosts. This Virtual Infrastructure uses server-based licensing. How many new licenses will be required?
A. 0
B. 4
C. 8
D. 16
Answer: A

Q: 14 What is the minimum supported hardware requirement to run a VirtualCenter server?
A. 512 MB RAM unless running a database server on the same machine
B. 2 GHz CPU
C. 150 MB free disk space
D. at least one Gigabit Ethernet adapter
Answer: B

Q: 15 What are the three configurable security policy VCP-310 dumps exceptions for a virtual switch? (Choose three.)
A. promiscuous mode
B. traffic shaping
C. MAC address change
D. Spanning Tree Protocol
E. forged transmits
Answer: A, C, E

Q: 16 You have determined that a virtual machine (VM) is having performance problems because it does not have enough CPU resources available. Which two methods could you use to guarantee this VM gets 100% of a CPU on the host when it needs it? (Choose two.)
A. set CPU affinity on that virtual machine, pinning it to a CPU 1
B. set the CPU reservation for this VM to 100%
C. set CPU affinity on that VM, pinning it to CPU 1 and set CPU affinity on all other VMs so that they specifically cannot use CPU 1
D. set the CPU limit for this VM to 100%
Answer: B, C

Q: 17 Which is a valid reason NOT to set affinity on a single virtual machine (VM)?
A. Affinity settings are ignored as part of a VMotion
B. Affinity can only be set on hyperthreaded systems.
C. A VM with affinity might not receive 100 percent of the CPU.
D. Setting affinity will monopolize a CPU making it unusable for other VMs on the server.
Answer: C

Q: 18 What is the maximum virtual disk size on a VMFS-3 volume?
A. 512 GB
B. 1 TB
C. 2 TB
D. 3.6 TB
Answer: C

Q: 19 What are the two possible storage multipathing policies that you can set on an ESX Server 3.0? (Choose two.)
A. Most Recently Used (MRU)
B. Open Shortest Path First (OSPF)
C. Persistent Binding
D. Fixed
E. Dynamic Load Balancing
Answer: A, D

Q: 20 On an ESX Server managed by VirtualCenter, you create a new user and assign this user Administrator Privileges. Which privileges will that user have on the ESX Server cluster in which this server resides?
A. Administrator
B. Virtual Machine Administrator
C. Cluster User
D. None
Answer: D

Q: 21 On the DRS cluster, which three steps are part of the process of creating a virtual machine (VM) in VirtualCenter 2.x? (Choose three.)
A. choose whether you are creating a “Typical” or “Custom” VM
B. select the group folder within the server farm in which you want the VM to reside
C. select the resource pool in which you want to run the VM
D. connect the CD-ROM drive to your OS disk image
E. select a datastore in which to store the VM files
Answer: A, C, E

Q: 22 During ESX Server 3.0 installation, selecting “Create a default network for virtual machines” will cause virtual machines to _____.
A. share a port group on VLAN 1
B. share an internal only virtual switch
C. share a network adapter with the service console
D. share a bond with all available network adapters
Answer: C

Q: 23 Which problem is MOST likely to be due to bad physical memory?
A. slow performance
B. virtual machines not starting
C. VMkernel panics
D. errors on virtual machines’ virtual SCSI buses
Answer: C

Q: 24 Which three are valid network load balancing policies? (Choose three.)
A. route based on destination MAC hash
B. route based on source and destination IP hash
C. route based on the originating virtual port ID
D. route based on explicit failover order
E. route based on source and destination MAC hash
Answer: B, C, D

Q: 25 Which three VirtualCenter roles, by default, have permission to create an alarm? (Choose three.)
A. Virtual Machine Power User
B. Resource Pool Administrator
C. Virtual Machine Administrator
D. Datacenter Administrator
E. Alarm Administrator
Answer: B, C, D

Q: 26 Which statement is true about the installation of Virtual VCP-310 study guide Infrastructure Web Access?
A. It is always installed on ESX Server and VirtualCenter.
B. It is always installed on ESX Server and is optional on VirtualCenter.
C. It is always installed on VirtualCenter and is optional on ESX Server.
D. It is optional on both ESX Server and VirtualCenter.
Answer: B

Q: 27 What is the purpose of resource shares?
A. to set guaranteed maximum resource usage
B. to set guaranteed minimum resource usage
C. to prioritize resources when total resources are scarce
D. to prevent starting virtual machines when resources are scarce
Answer: C

Q: 28 A VirtualCenter login that worked correctly in the past is suddenly no longer working. It fails to authenticate with the previous login ID. Assuming there are no network problems and that all servers are up and running, where is the problem located?
A. in the user’s account properties in Active Directory
B. in the VirtualCenter database’s security tables
C. in the VirtualCenter management server’s security functionality
D. in the Virtual Infrastructure client’s security configuration settings
E. in the VirtualCenter management agent on the host
Answer: A

Q: 29 An alarm in VirtualCenter can be configured to perform which three actions? (Choose three.)
A. run a script
B. reboot a virtual machine
C. send an e-mail
D. reboot an ESX Server
E. disable the balloon driver
Answer: A, B, C

Q: 30 You are experiencing traffic overload on an Uplink network adapter.
Which three actions can be taken to reduce the overload? (Choose three.)
A. configure traffic shaping to reduce contention
B. move virtual machines to other VLAN port groups on the same vSwitch
C. add NIC teaming to increase the available bandwidth
D. move virtual machines to other vSwitches to reduce contention
E. add the VMkernel TCP/IP networking stack to improve performance
Answer: A, C, D

TT0-201 Real Exam Questions or Full Refund

1. Which of the following is a concern when implementing IPsec for SIP-based voice calls behind a firewall that implements Network Address Translation (NAT)?
A.IPsec doesn’t natively support SIP.
B.Encryption causes increased overhead.
C.You must implement tunnel mode using the AH security protocol.
D.You must implement transport mode using the AH security protocol.
Answer: B

2. Which of the following describes how the host portion of IPv4 and IPv6 addresses are created?
A.All IPv4 and Ipv6 host addresses are TT0-201 determined by ICANN.
B.All IPv4 and IPv6 host addresses are based on the host’s MAC address.
C.The host portion of an IPv4 address is determined by ICANN. The host portion of an IPv6 address is determined according to the multicast address.
D.The host portion of an IPv4 address is determined arbitrarily according to the value of the subnet mask. The host portion of an IPv6 address is determined from the host’s MAC address.
Answer: D

3. You have been given the following in CIDR notation: 152.2.100.1/25. How many subnets can you create, and how many IP addresses can each subnet have?
A.55 subnets, with 1024 addresses per subnet
B.126 subnets, with 512 addresses per subnet
C.128 subnets, with 126 addresses per subnet
D.1024 subnets, with 55 addresses per subnet
Answer: C

4. You have decided to use the following range of IP addresses:
172.16.0.0/24
Which of the following will allow you to avoid deploying NAT traversal workarounds?
A.Deploy a STUN server.
B.Deploy a Session Border Controller (SBC).
C.Use registered IP addresses for all devices.
D.Use the default subnet mask for your IP address range.
Answer: C

5. You have implemented DiffServ to describe a collection of service policies that determine how your network equipment will classify and condition voice data in a traffic flow scheme. What is the accepted name for this group?
A.Class
B.Group
C.VLAN
D.Domain
Answer: D

6. You have been asked to recommend an appropriate network bandwidth for a medium to large business. This business will use it for their IP phones, as well as their data connection. Which of the following would you recommend?
A.DS0
B.DS1
C.ISDN BRI
D.ISDN PRI
Answer: D

7. You are helping design an SIP implementation for an existing network. Which of the following is the most important element to verify?
A.Whether or not the company uses fire-grade cabling.
B.Whether or not the company has implemented QoS.
C.Whether or not the company Web server supports SSL.
D.Whether or not the company layer 2 switches have fault tolerance in place.
Answer: B

8. Your customer has asked you to enable fax messages to be delivered to her computer so she can read it in her e-mail. Which protocol should you implement on your convergence device?
A.T.30
B.T.34
C.T.37
D.T.38
Answer: C

9. Which protocol does is generally used to establish calls in SIP implementations?
A.TCP
B.UDP
C.RTP
D.H.225
Answer: B

10. Which of the following connects the Foreign Exchange Station (FXS) portion of an Analog Telephone Adapter (ATA) to an analog phone?
A.USB connector.
B.RJ-11 connector.
C.RJ-45 connector.
D.RS-232 connector.
Answer: B

11. In which of the following layers of the OSI/RM would you find the Session Initiation Protocol (SIP)?
A.Network
B.Physical
C.Session
D.Application
Answer: D

12. Which of the following devices operates at Layer 2 of the OSI/RM and is considered the ideal device for creating a new broadcast domain for a voice device?
A.Hub
B.Bridge
C.Router
D.Switch
Answer: D

13. The Session Initiation Protocol (SIP) the ASCII text standard to format its messages. The H.323 protocol uses ASN.1 binary code. Which layer of the OSI/RM is responsible for translating, processing and reading ASN.1 and ASCII TT0-201 dumps messages?
A.Network
B.Session
C.Physical
D.Presentation
Answer: D

14. When data is sent down to the Session layer of the OSI/RM the PDU consists of which encapsulated components?
A.Physical header, Network header, Data
B. Data, Application header, Presentation header
C.Network header, Data Link header, Physical header
D.Application header, Presentation header, Transport header
Answer: B

15. Which of the following is the correct ordering of protocol data units, starting from Layer 1 of the OSI/RM to Layer 7?
A.Packet, data, frame, bits
B.Bits, frame, data, packet
C.Data, segment, packet, frame
D.Frame, packet, segment, data
Answer: D

16. Which of the following best describes what occurs to a protocol data unit as information passes from layer 1 to layer 7?
A.Each layer reads all remaining protocol data units and adds information specific to that layer.
B. Each layer reads all remaining protocol data units and determines how to route the packet.
C.As data units are passed up the protocol stack, each layer removes information relevant to the function of that layer.
D.As data units are passed down the protocol stack, each layer adds information appropriate to the function of that layer.
Answer: C

17. Which of the following must be used by both an 802.11i Wi-fi card and a IP-enabled PBX network adapter?
A.A Virtual LAN Identifier (VID).
B.A Secure Set Identifier (SSID) entry.
C.A Media Access Control (MAC) address.
D.A Canonical Format Indicator (CFI) entry.
Answer: C

18. Consider the following image of a Media Access Control (MAC) address:QV12116bY$X%&,*+
Which of the following describes the portion designated by letter A?
A.The 48 bit ID code, known as the Mac-48.
B.The 48 bit ID code, known as the EUI-48.
C.The 24 bit vendor code, known as the Organizationally Unique Identifier (OUI)
D.The 64 bit interface serial number, known as the known as the Organizationally Unique Identifier (OUI).
Answer: C

19. Which of the following is most likely to be used to identify a device to be called in a hunt group?
A.A Virtual LAN Identifier (VID).
B.A Secure Set Identifier (SSID) entry.
C.A Canonical Format Indicator (CFI) entry.
D.A Media Access Control (MAC) address.
Answer: D

20. When a technician connects a North American T-1 trunk to a European E-1 trunk using a conversion device, which of the following will result?
A.No less than 80% of the T-1 can be used.
B.No more than 80% of the E-1 trunk can be used.
C.No connection can be made between E-1 and T-1.
D.The connection will fail, because E-1 uses out-of-band transmission, and T-1 lines use in-band transmission.
Answer: B

21. Which of the following is an accurate statement concerning ISDN, E-carrier and T-carriers?
A.Each uses out-of-band signaling.
B.None was originally designed for supporting data transmissions.
C.Each has native QoS capabilities that allow you to prioritize data streams.
D.None has native QoS capabilities that allow you to prioritize data streams.
Answer: D

22. Which of the following describes an E-1 line used for voice data?
A.It uses in band signaling.
B.It provides 30 64-Kbps channels.
C.It provides 24 64kbps data channels.
D.It provides a connection speed of 1.544 Kbps.
Answer: B

23. Which of the following devices makes decisions based on MAC addresses, and is considered the most appropriate device to use when limiting broadcast domains for devices that will process voice data?
A.Bridge
B.Layer 2 switch
C.Layer 3 switch
D.Session Border Controller
Answer: B

24. Which of the following devices inspects incoming packets, makes dynamic routing decisions based on the source and destination IP addresses, and is considered the most appropriate device to use when forwarding packets between networks?
A.Repeater
B.Gateway
C.Layer 2 switch
D.Layer 3 switch
Answer: D

25. Which of the following devices contains functionality that often introduces significant problems for SIP-based voice connections, and often requires a workaround?
A.Firewall
B.Layer 2 switch
C.Layer 3 switch
D.Session Border Controller (SBC)
Answer: A

26. You have been asked to implement an IPsec VPN for TT0-201 study guide voice calls. These calls will pass from one corporate firewall to another. Both firewalls use Network Address Translation (NAT). Which form of IPsec will you implement?
A.Tunnel mode using the AH security protocol.
B.Transport mode using the AH security protocol.
C.Tunnel mode using the ESP security protocol.
D.Transport mode using the ESP security protocol.
Answer: C

27. Which of the following best describes IPsec Tunnel Mode?
A.Tunnel mode does not support the encryption of data packets.
B.It encapsulates network traffic inside of an IP packet for delivery to a remote network.
C.Only the header of the packet is encrypted. The rest of the packet, including the data, is not encrypted.
D.Tunnel mode does not support the ability to traverse NAT implementations, unless you use additional software or hardware solutions.
Answer: B

28. Which of the following would be a valid SRV entry that allows queries to the SIP device named
support.ctpcertified.com to be redirected with the priority of 10, a weight of 40, to the system named support.aspcompany.com on port 5060?
A.support.ctpcertified.com. 10 40 5060 support.aspcompany.com.
B.support.aspcompany.com. 5060 40 10 support.ctpcertified.com.
C.sip:support@ctpcertified.com. 86400 IN SRV support.aspcompany.com. 10 40 5060
D._sip_support.ctpcertified.com. 86400 IN SRV 10 40 5060 support.aspcompany.com.
Answer: D

29. What type of NAT takes a private IP address and translates it into a registered IP address?
A.Dynamic
B.Full cone
C.Symmetric
D.Overlapping
Answer: A

30. You are using a server that processes UDP packets in a VoIP solution. You are also using Network Address Translation (NAT). Consider the following:
1. The host performing NAT maps all requests from an internal IP address and port to that same external IP address and port.
2. Any external host can send a packet to the internal host to the external address that has just been mapped.
What type of NAT is being used?
A.Symmetric
B.Full cone
C.Restricted cone
D.Port restricted cone
Answer: B

TB0-108 Real Exam Questions or Full Refund

1. Click the Exhibit button.

Where should a Transaction Control step be added so that the Status step is delivered if there is an error processing the EAI steps?
A.before the Status step, to ensure that the step is sent out
B.before the Withdraw step, to catch a failure in the sequence of EAI steps
C.before the Start step, to control the transaction after the step is released
D.after the Balance step, to control the transaction if one of the EAI steps fails
Answer: B

2. When a step is the first object in a procedure, which TB0-108 action presents the workitem instantly to the user performing a manual case start?
A.use SW_STARTER as the addressee
B.use a Complex Router before the first step
C.use a group as an addressee for the first step
D.use a process field to capture the User ID and use it as a dynamic address
Answer: A

3. Which type of script is associated with a sub-procedure parameter mapping?
A.Keep
B.Public
C.Private
D.Release
Answer: C

4. Which statement is true about the maximum number of EAI steps allowed in a process?
A.There is no limit.
B.A process may contain up to 20 EAI steps.
C.A process may contain up to 40 EAI steps.
D.The maximum number of EAI steps allowed in a process is configurable in the STAFFCFG file.
Answer: A

5. Click the Exhibit button.

The process is a main process containing no scripts. There are no external applications that can interrupt it, and it has been Released. A new case is started.
When would the process stall indefinitely? (Choose two.)
A.if manual step 2 is never released
B.if manual step 3 is never released
C.only when the condition before manual step 1 is evaluated as FALSE
D.when the condition before manual step 1 is evaluated as FALSE and the condition after manual step 3 evaluates as TRUE
Answer: AB

6. Which four locations contain information that TIBCO iProcess Suite uses to automatically assign priority to a workitem every time a step is processed? (Choose four.)
A.SWDIR\etc\staffcfg file
B.SWDIR\etc\staffpms file
C.SW_IP_xxx system field values
D.SW_CP_xxx system field values
E.the Status tab on the Step Definition dialog
Answer: ACDE

7. Where is it possible to change the priority of a workitem while it is in a work queue?
A.SWDIR\etc\staffcfg file
B.SW_IP_xxx system field values
C.Change Access Criteria Options
D.SW_CP_xxx system field values
E.the Status tab on the Step Definition dialog
Answer: B

8. Workitems in a queue are given either category ‘A’, ‘B’, ‘C’ or ‘D’ as a method of sorting items in order of urgency, ‘A’ being the most urgent. The Increment value is -20. Items marked as:
‘A’ are given the Default Priority (50)
‘B’ are given a Base Priority value of 100 and are escalated every 5 minutes
‘C’ are given a Base Priority value of 150 and are escalated every 10 minutes
‘D’ are given a Base Priority value of 200 and are escalated every 15 minutes
One item of each category arrives in the queue at the same time.
After one hour, how will the workitems be ordered in the work queue when sorted by Priority?
A.A, B, C, D
B.B, A, C, D
C.B, C, A, D
D.C, D, A, B
Answer: C

9. Workitems in a queue are given either category ‘A’ or ‘B’ according to their urgency. Category ‘A’ items are considered most urgent and are given the Default Priority (50). Category ‘B’ items are given a Base Priority value of 200 and are escalated every 5 minutes. The Increment value is -20. How long will it take a category ‘B’ item to gain a higher priority than a category ‘A’ item in the work queue?
A.30 minutes
B.35 minutes
C.40 minutes
D.45 minutes
Answer: C

10. What is the recommended step to use to start up a parallel branch of a case as a result of some external trigger?
A.EAI
B.Graft
C.Event
D.Standard
Answer: C

11. What happens when an Event is used to interrupt a case and the Event step is NOT linked to any other steps? (Choose two.)
A.Case data changes will be imported, and the case will restart from the first step.
B.Case data changes will be imported, but the case will NOT be moved along the process.
C.Case data changes will be imported, and the audit trail will be updated to record the Event trigger.
D.The interrupt will be rejected and will have no effect on the case, except that the audit trail will be updated to record the Event trigger.
Answer: BC

12. What happens when an Event is used to interrupt a case and the Event step is linked into other steps? (Choose two.)
A.Case data changes will be imported, and the case will move along the process.
B.Case data changes will be imported, and the case will remain where it is in the process.
C.Case data changes will be imported, and the audit trail will be updated to record the Event trigger.
D.Case data changes will be imported and the case will move along the process provided the Enable Active Response flag is set on the Event step.
Answer: AC

13. Which two can you use to trigger an Event? (Choose two.)
A.the SWUTIL utility
B.the CALL function
C.the CUSTAUDIT function
D.the WINACTION function
E.the TRIGGEREVENT function
Answer: AE

14. Which two statements are true about using Event steps to update a case when a document is received? (Choose two.)
A.An Event step CANNOT be used to update case data upon receipt of a TB0-108 dumps document.
B.An Event step can be used to call external databases to check for new documents.
C.An Event step can be used to automatically update all workitems upon receipt of a document.
D.An Event step can be used on a parallel path within the case, triggered when a document arrives.
Answer: CD

15. A bank policy states that after an account is opened there must be a 7 day waiting period during which no processing can occur. How can you automate this requirement in your process?
A.include a Wait step with a static Period Deadline of 7 days
B.include an EAI step defined for Delayed Release after 7 days
C.include a Complex Router with an Expression Deadline of 7 days
D.include an Event step, linked into the process flow, with a static Period Deadline of 7 days
Answer: D

16. To test a Dynamic sub-procedure you must first _____.
A.release the sub-procedure
B.release the parent procedure
C.create a sub-procedure parameter template
D.define array fields in the sub-procedure to hold data to be passed to the parent procedure
Answer: C

17. Which statement is true about a Static sub-procedure call?
A.Extra sub-cases can be invoked after the call has been made and while previous sub-cases are still live.
B.The call can invoke only one concurrent instance of the sub-procedure that has been linked into that call definition.
C.The call will invoke one concurrent instance of each of the multiple sub-procedures that have been linked into that call definition.
D.The call can invoke multiple concurrent instances of the one sub-procedure that has been linked into that call definition, provided they are all invoked at the time the call is made.
Answer: B

18. A project has a main procedure with a status of Released. This main procedure calls one sub-procedure within it that has a status of Unreleased. No other versions of the sub-procedure exist and precedence is set as default. Into which queue will the sub-procedure workitems be delivered?
A.live queue
B.test queue
C.Undelivered Work Items queue
D.The workitems will not be delivered.
Answer: B

19. Which two tasks must be performed to call a Dynamic sub-procedure? (Choose two.)
A.create a parameter template
B.assign the sub-procedure name in the parent process at runtime
C.define a standard field to hold the sub-procedure name to call at runtime
D.at design time, specify the sub-procedure name on the Dynamic sub-procedure step in the parent process
Answer: AB

20. Click the Exhibit button.

CALLSUB TEST contains manual steps. STEP2 and STEP3 are completed and released one after the other. How many times is the sub-procedure called?
A.none
B.one
C.two
D.three
Answer: B

21. Which two statements are true about Dynamic sub-procedure calls? (Choose two.)
A.A Dynamic sub-procedure call must use an array to store sub-procedure names.
B.A Dynamic sub-procedure call may NOT use an array to store sub-procedure names.
C.A Dynamic sub-procedure call can invoke multiple concurrent instances of the same sub-procedure.
D.A Dynamic sub-procedure call CANNOT invoke multiple concurrent instances of the same sub-procedure.
Answer: AC

22. What happens when a Commit and Concede Transaction Control step is reached? (Choose three.)
A.An entry is logged in the audit trail.
B.An entry is logged in the sw_warn file.
C.The iProcess Engine will stop processing the case at that point.
D.The iProcess Engine will stop processing that branch of the case.
E.The state of the case is committed up to that point, after progressing other parallel branches.
F.The state of the case is committed up to that point, without progressing other parallel branches.
Answer: ADE

23. What happens when a Commit and Continue Transaction Control step is reached? (Choose three.)
A.An entry is logged in the audit trail.
B.An entry is logged in the sw_warn file.
C.The iProcess Engine will stop processing that branch of the case.
D.The iProcess Engine will process further steps beyond the Transaction Control step.
E.The state of the case is committed up to that point, after progressing other parallel branches.
F.The state of the case is committed up to that point, without progressing other parallel branches.
Answer: ADE

24. What are two purposes of the Abort Transaction Control step? (Choose two.)
A.to abort or close a case following a failed EAI step
B.to catch EAI steps that attempt to abort the current transaction
C.to abort a transaction following a failed non-transactional EAI step
D.to allow a transaction to be aborted under control of the procedure definition
Answer: CD

25. Graft steps enable you to TB0-108 study guide attach multiple _____ to a specific point in your procedure. (Choose two.)
A.steps
B.events
C.sub-procedures
D.external processes
Answer: CD

26. Which type of sub-process can be used in Graft steps?
A.a sub-process of type Any
B.a sub-process of type Graft
C.a sub-process using no parameters
D.a sub-process using a parameter template
Answer: D

27. What are four valid field definitions? (Choose four.)
A.Text
B.Float
C.Time
D.Memo
E.Integer
F.Numeric
Answer: ACDF

28. Click the Exhibit button.

What is the result of clicking OK on the Mark Field – Calculations Dialog?
A.An error message appears.
B.The system date is calculated adding 7 days and the result is entered into the CHANGE field.
C.The system date is calculated adding 7 months and the result is entered into the CHANGE field.
D.The system date is calculated adding 7 working days and the result is entered into the CHANGE field.
Answer: A

29. Click the Exhibit button.

Why will clicking OK on the Mark Field – Calculations Dialog result in an error message?
A.You cannot add a number to SW_DATE.
B.There is no ‘Condition’ specified for the calculation.
C.The calculated value exceeds the length of the CHANGE field.
D.The calculated value is NOT the same data type as the CHANGE field.
Answer: D

30. Which two statements are true about embedded field definitions? (Choose two.)
A.An embedded field is defined when marking a field in a form.
B.An embedded field is an option chosen when defining a field.
C.Using the embedded option, a date: 24/12/2006, can be displayed as 24th December, 2006.
D.Using the embedded option, date: 24/12/2006, can be displayed as Twenty Fourth December, 2006.
Answer: AC

OG0-081 Real Exam Questions or Full Refund

1. 1.CA.1: All of the following elements are required in the Application Architecture Baseline Document except ____.
A. architecture models of the candidate system(s)
B. business and organization units supported
C. precedent and successor applications
D. owner(s) or business unit(s) responsible for requirements
E. hardware and software platforms used
Answer: A

2. 1.CA.6: Which of the following would be a potential downstream use of the qualitative criteria for the application architecture
A. managing code OG0-081 quality
B. generating service level agreements
C. regression testing
D. gap analysis
E. All of the above
Answer: B

3. 1.D.2: The TOGAF Technical Reference Model _____.
A. is intended as an example and should be tailored to the organization’s needs
B. must be used “as is” for developing comprehensive architecture models
C. contains several industry specific frameworks
D. is intended to contain the Enterprise Continuum
E. contains only solution building blocks
Answer: A

4. 1.P.3: Which of the following statements about architecture principles is most true?
A. Architecture principles must be tailored to the requirements of a given architecture project
B. Architecture principles are intended to be enduring and seldom amended
C. Architecture principles cannot transcend the organization’s business strategies and objectives
D. Executive Management can define principles as a means of enforcing compliance to its policies and rules
E. Due to their sensitive nature, architecture principles should be kept confidential
Answer: B

5. 1.E.2: During Phase E – Opportunties and Solutions, a gap analysis can be used to compare the ____ between the as-is and the to-be architecture.
A. requirements
B. Solution Building Blocks
C. Architecture Building Blocks
D. business functions
E. standards
Answer: D

6. 1.F.1: What is the objective of Phase F?
A. To establish the IT Governance framework that will be used to direct deployment.
B. To sort the implementation projects into priority order for implementation and migration.
C. To implement change management processes that will be used to manage the implementation projects.
D. To validate the architecture vision.
E. All of these tasks
Answer: B

7. 1.G.1: What are the key inputs to Phase G – Implementation Governance?
A. reusable solution building blocks
B. statement of architecture work
C. request for architecture work
D. all of these items
E. impact analysis
Answer: D

8. 1.H.1: As the ADM cycle is completed for a given architecture program, the architecture staff is responsible for ____.
A. Project planning
B. Final appraisal of the implemented architecture
C. Ongoing monitoring of business and technology changes related to the architecture work
D. Implementation Governance
E. Internal marketing of the solution
Answer: C

9. 1.R.1: When can new requirements be added to the requirement management repository?
A. during each phase of the ADM
B. at the Architecture Vision phase
C. anytime during Phases A through D
D. only upon completion of a business scenario
E. when submitting the Request for Architecture Work
Answer: A

10. 2.5: Who usually initiates a Request for Architecture Work?
A. the sponsoring organization
B. the architecture organization
C. the CIO/CTO
D. the architecture governance board
E. senior management
Answer: A

11. 2.18: A Technical Architecture Report should contain all of these items except ___.
A. requirements traceability analysis
B. project impact analysis
C. technology architecture models
D. technical specification for each building block
E. gap analysis report
Answer: B

12. 2.23: The final version of an Impact Analysis should contain all of the following except _____.
A. prioritized projects
B. enhanced budget forecasts
C. time ordered sequencing
D. Implementation recommendations
E. measures of effectiveness
Answer: B

13. 3.1.1: Which of the following would be a good example of an infrastructure application?
A. Virtual Private Network
B. System and Network Management system
C. e-Mail
D. Office (desktop) software
E. All of these
Answer: E

14. 3.1.3: In the high level Technical Reference Model ____.
A. all of these
B. the application directly communicates to the outside environment
C. the application communicates with the application platform through the communications infrastructure interface
D. it is possible to analyze performance crtieria
E. the communication infrastructure is very diverse
Answer: E

15. 4.1.4: The Architecture Continuum _____ the Solutions OG0-081 dumps Continuum.
A. drives
B. is driven by
C. is designed to satisfy
D. is based on
E. guides and supports the evolution of
Answer: E

16. 5.2: The U.S. Department of Defense C4ISR Architecture framework (now DODAF) provides an integrated architecture model with three views. Which of these sets of views is provided?
A. logical, physical, financial
B. operational, technical, systems
C. logical, physical, operational
D. strategic, tactical, operational
E. strategic, systems, operations
Answer: B

17. 6.1.1: Which of the following is not true about the nature of governance?
A. All of these are characterisitics of governance.
B. Provides guidance on the effective use of resources to achieve the organization’s strategic objectives
C. Ensure that all actions and related decisions are available to be examined by authorized parties
D. All decisions taken, processes used and their implementation will not be allowed to create unfair advantage to any one particular party.
E. All involved parties have a commitment to adhere to procedures, processes and authority structures established by the organisation.
Answer: A

18. 6.2.2: In TOGAF’s Architecture Governance organizational structure, which group is chiefly responsible for deployment and operations?
A. domain architects
B. IT service management
C. Chief Information Officer/Chief Technology Officer
D. program management office
E. technical support
Answer: B

19. 1.A.2: Typically, business goals and drivers have already been established and need only be validated. If this is not true, what process should be followed?
A. Resequence the project to occur later in the overall program
B. The team should work with the project sponsor to create a set of goals and objectives and to validate those goals and objectives with top management
C. The project team should create a set of placeholder goals and objectives
D. Place the project on hold until a suitable set of business goals and objectives can be defined by top management
E. Benchmark with a similar, noncompeting organization, and adopt their best practices for business goals and objectives
Answer: B

20. 1.A.5: During the Architecture Vision phase, what would be a typical source of enterprise wide constraints?
A. The results of a detailed gap analysis
B. The project plan for the given architecture activity
C. External benchmarks
D. The organization’s business and architecture principles
E. The architecture contract
Answer: D

21. 1.B.3: In Phase B, which of the following is least appropriate as a common modelling approach used to capture, model, and analyze a given viewpoint?
A. Project Impact Analysis
B. Organization structure modelling
C. Business functions and services modelling
D. Business process modelling
E. Correlation of organization and function matrix
Answer: A

22. 1.P.1: Which of the following is not an objective of the Preliminary Phase (Framework and Principles) of the ADM?
A. Scope the architecture work
B. To create a vision for a proposed architecture cycle
C. To establish a process for confirming the fitness for purpose of the defined framework.
D. To determine the “architecture footprint” for the organization
E. To evaluate criteria for selecting tools
Answer: B

23. 1.P.2: Who creates and approves the architecture principles that are defined during the Preliminary Phase?
A. the governing body that will oversee the architecture work
B. the executive sponsor
C. Corporate legal counsel
D. Chief Information Officer
E. the architecture team that is responsible for the work items
Answer: A

24. 1.CD.4: Once the data architecture model(s) have been completed, the next step in the Data Architecture phase is to ____.
A. normalize the schemas
B. create detailed schemas
C. select data architecture building blocks
D. use a CRUD matrix to relate data operations to business functions
E. create data definition modules to implement the architecture
Answer: C

25. 1.CD.4: Once the data architecture building blocks have been selected, the next step in the Data Architecture phase is to ____.
A. use a CRUD matrix to relate data operations to business functions
B. conduct a checkpoint review with stakeholders to validate the data models and building blocks
C. create data definition modules to implement the architecture
D. perform a gap analysis to highlight omitted or unneeded data
E. define the Baseline Data Architecture
Answer: B

26. 1.CD.4: Once the data architecture model(s) have been completed, the next step in the Data Architecture phase is to ____.
A. conduct a checkpoint review with OG0-081 study guide stakeholders to validate the data models and building blocks
B. select data architecture building blocks
C. perform a gap analysis to highlight omitted or unneeded data
D. use a CRUD matrix to relate data operations to business functions
E. create data definition modules to implment the architecture
Answer: B

27. 1.CD.5: Which of the following is least appropriate for inclusion in a TOGAF Data Architecture?
A. detailed physical schema
B. CRUD Matrix
C. enterprise level data entities
D. logical schema
E. entity relationship diagram
Answer: A

28. 1.CD.5: Which of the following is least appropriate for inclusion in a TOGAF Data Architecture?
A. CRUD Matrix
B. field level integrity constraints
C. enterprise level data entities
D. logical schema
E. entity relationship diagram
Answer: B

29. 1.CD.5: Which of the following is least appropriate for inclusion in a TOGAF Data Architecture?
A. logical schema
B. CRUD Matrix
C. enterprise level data entities
D. stored procedures
E. entity relationship diagram
Answer: D

30. 1.CD.6: Which of the following qualitative criteria is least appropriate for consideration in the Data Architecture
A. availability
B. security/privacy
C. All of these are appropriate
D. accuracy
E. minimum tolerable data losses
Answer: C

EX0-101 Real Exam Questions or Full Refund

Q: 1
Which of the following statements is CORRECT?
1. The only phase of the Service Management Lifecycle where value can be measured is Service Operation
2. All of the phases of the lifecycle are concerned with the value of IT services

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both of the above
D. Neither of the above

Answer: B

Q: 2
Which of the following statements is CORRECT for every process?
1. It delivers its primary results to a EX0-101 customer or stakeholder
2. It defines activities that are executed by a single function

A. Both of the above
B. 1 only
C. Neither of the above
D. 2 only

Answer: B

Q: 3
Which of the following is NOT one of the five individual aspects of Service Design?

A. The design of the Service Portfolio, including the Service Catalogue
B. The design of new or changed services
C. The design of Market Spaces
D. The design of the technology architecture and management systems

Answer: C

Q: 4
Which of the following is NOT the responsibility of the Service Catalogue Manager?

A. Ensuring that information in the Service Catalogue is accurate
B. Ensuring that information within the Service Pipeline is accurate
C. Ensuring that information in the Service Catalogue is consistent with information in the Service Portfolio
D. Ensuring that all operational services are recorded in the Service Catalogue

Answer: B

Q: 5
Which of the following statements is CORRECT?

A. The Configuration Management System (CMS) is part of the Known Error Data Base (KEDB)
B. The Service Knowledge Management System (SKMS) is part of the CMS
C. The KEDB and the CMS form part of the larger SKMS
D. The CMS is part of the Configuration Management Data Base (CMDB)

Answer: C

Q: 6
Which of the following questions does Service Strategy help answer with its guidance?
1. How do we prioritize investments across a portfolio?
2. What services to offer and to whom?
3. What are the Patterns of Business Activity (PBA)?

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. 3 only
D. All of the above

Answer: D

Q: 7
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a process?

A. It is measurable
B. Delivers specific results
C. Responds to specific events
D. A method of structuring an organization

Answer: D

Q: 8
Which of the following statements about processes is INCORRECT?

A. A process may define policies, standards and guidelines
B. The definition of Process Control is “The activity of planning and regulating a process, with the objective of achieving Best Practice”
C. The objective of any IT process should be expressed in terms of business benefits and goals
D. The output from a process has to conform to operational norms derived from business objectives

Answer: B

Q: 9
What is a RACI model used for?

A. Performance analysis
B. Recording Configuration Items
C. Monitoring services
D. Defining roles and responsibilities

Answer: D

Q: 10
The group that authorizes changes that must be installed faster than the normal process is called the?

A. CAB Emergency Committee (CAB/EC)
B. Emergency CAB (ECAB)
C. Urgent Change Board (UCB)
D. Urgent Change Authority (UCA)

Answer: B

Q: 11
Contracts relating to an outsourced Data Centre would be managed by?

A. Technical Management
B. Service Desk
C. IT Operations Control
D. Facilities Management

Answer: D

Q: 12
Which Service Design process makes the most use of data supplied by Demand Management?

A. Service Catalogue Management
B. Service Level Management
C. IT Service Continuity Management
D. Capacity Management

Answer: D

Q: 13
Which of the following CANNOT be stored and managed by a tool?

A. Knowledge
B. Information
C. Wisdom
D. Data

Answer: C

Q: 14
The BEST description of the purpose of Service EX0-101 dumps Operation is?

A. To decide how IT will engage with suppliers during the Service Management Lifecycle
B. To proactively prevent all outages to IT Services
C. To design and build processes that will meet business needs
D. To deliver and support IT Services at agreed levels to business users and customers

Answer: D

Q: 15
In which core publication can you find detailed descriptions of Service Level Management, Availability Management, Supplier Management and IT Service Continuity Management?

A. Service Strategy
B. Service Design
C. Service Transition
D. Service Operation

Answer: B

Q: 16
Which of the following sentences BEST describes a Standard Change?

A. A change to the service provider’s established policies and guidelines
B. A change that correctly follows the required change process
C. A pre-authorized change that has an accepted and established procedure
D. A change that is made as the result of an audit

Answer: C

Q: 17
Which process is responsible for discussing reports with customers showing whether services have met their targets?

A. Continual Service Improvement
B. Business Relationship Management
C. Service Level Management
D. Availability Management

Answer: C

Q: 18
What are the three Service Provider business models?

A. Internal Service provider, Outsourced 3rd party and Off-shore party
B. Internal Service Operations provider, External Service Operations provider, Shared Service Unit
C. Internal Service provider, External Service provider, Outsourced 3rd Party
D. Internal Service provider, External Service provider, Shared Service Provider

Answer: D

Q: 19 Which is the correct combination of Service Management terms across theLifecycle?

A. 1B, 2C, 3D, 4A
B. 1C, 2D, 3A, 4B
C. 1C, 2B, 3A, 4D
D. 1A, 2B, 3C, 4D

Answer: C

Q: 20
Application Management plays a role in all applications. One of the key decisions to which they contribute is?

A. Where the vendor of an application is located
B. Whether to buy an application or build it
C. Who the vendor of the storage devices will be
D. Should application development be outsourced

Answer: B

Q: 21
How many times should each stage of the Plan, Do, Check, Act (PDCA) cycle be visited?

A. There should be a single Plan and Do, then Check and Act should be carried out multiple times to implement Continual Improvement
B. Each stage should be carried out once in the order Plan-Do-Check-Act
C. The entire cycle should be repeated multiple times to implement Continual Improvement
D. There should be a single Plan, then the Do-Check-Act cycle should be repeated multiple times to implement Continual Improvement

Answer: C

Q: 22 Which is the first step in the 7 Step Improvement Process?

A. Prepare for action
B. Define what you should measure
C. Where are we now?
D. Identify gaps in Service Level Agreement (SLA) achievement

Answer: B

Q: 23 Which of the following is NOT a valid objective of Request Fulfilment?

A. To provide information to users about what services are available and how to request them
B. To update the Service Catalogue with services that may be requested through the Service Desk
C. To provide a channel for users to request and receive standard services
D. To source and deliver the components of standard services that have been requested

Answer: B

Q: 24 What is the definition of an Alert?

A. An audit report that indicates areas where IT is not performing according to agreed procedures
B. A type of Incident
C. An error message to the user of an application
D. A warning that a threshold has been reached or that something has changed

Answer: D

Q: 25 In many organisations the role of Incident Manager is assigned to the Service Desk. It is important that the Incident Manager is given the authority to:

A. Only manage Incidents effectively through the 1st line
B. Manage Incidents effectively through 1st, 2nd and 3rd line
C. Only manage Incidents effectively through 1st and 2nd line
D. Only manage Incidents EX0-101 study guide effectively at the 3rd line

Answer: B

Q: 26 Which of the following is NOT part of the Service Design phase of the Service Lifecycle?

A. Produce and maintain all necessary Service Transition packages
B. Produce quality, secure and resilient designs for new or improved services, technology architecture, processes or measurement systems that meet all the agreed current and future IT requirements of the organisation
C. Take the overall Service Strategies and ensure they are reflected in the Service Design process and the service designs that are produced
D. Measuring the effectiveness and efficiency of Service Design and the supporting processes

Answer: A

Q: 27 Which process is responsible for frequently occurring changes where risk and cost are low?

A. Access management
B. Incident Management
C. Release and Deployment Management
D. Request fulfilment

Answer: D

Q: 28 Staff in an IT department are experts in managing specific technology, but none of them know what services are offered to the business. What imbalance does this represent?

A. Extreme focus on responsiveness
B. Extreme focus on cost
C. Vendor focused
D. Extreme internal focus

Answer: D

Q: 29 Which of these statements about Service Desk staff is CORRECT?

A. The Service Desk should try to have a high level of staff turnover as the training requirements are low and this helps to minimise salaries
B. Service Desk staff should be discouraged from applying for other roles as it is more cost effective to keep them in the role where they have been trained
C. The Service Desk can often be used as a stepping stone for staff to move into other more technical or supervisory roles
D. Service Desk staff should be recruited from people who have high levels of technical skill to minimise the cost of training them

Answer: C

Q: 30 Effective release and deployment management enables the service provider to add value to the business by?

A. Delivering change, faster and at optimum cost and minimized risk
B. Ensuring that all assets are accounted for
C. Verifying the accuracy of all items in the configuration management database
D. Ensures that the fastest servers are purchased

Answer: A

CT0-101 Real Exam Questions or Full Refund

1. A user is complaining that during calls the remote caller’s voice intermittently cannot be heard. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause?
A. Network to Public Switched Telephone Network (PSTN) impedance is mismatched
B. Network packet drops on the receivers side of the conversation
C. Network jitter is above acceptable limits on the round trip path
D. Network packet drops on the transmitting side of the conversation
Answer: B

2. Which of the following BEST describes a CT0-101 network bottleneck?
A. A router with multiple WAN links.
B. A switch that is underutilized.
C. A network with multiple switches.
D. A router that is receiving more information than it can process.
Answer: D

3. Which of the following is true about jitter?
A. Jitter is caused by insufficient network capacity.
B. Jitter is the variation in time between the arrival of voice packets.
C. Jitter can only be solved by using prioritization techniques.
D. Jitter is caused by endpoints.
Answer: B

4. Which of the following protocols can be used in scripting call flows in an Interactive Voice Response (IVR)?
A. HTML
B. HTTP
C. XML/VXML
D. TCP/IP
Answer: C

5. Which of the following codecs would a technician configure on the VoIP server to match the voice quality of a regular Public Switched Telephone Network (PSTN) call on a VoIP phone?
A. G. 729
B. G. 732
C. G. 722
D. G. 711
Answer: D

6. Which of the following BEST describes the functionality of a gateway? (Select TWO)
A. A device or software program that provides the central point of functionality for all VOIP calls.
B. A device or software program that provides a proxy between two systems with incompatible technologies.
C. A device or software that navigates packets between the enterprise network and the internet.
D. A device or software that connects networks that use different protocols.
E. A device that protects against security breaches from external networks.
Answer: BD

7. A company has a contact center with thousands of distributed agents, skill-based routing, multiple hunt groups, CTI and desktop screen pops. Management wants detailed reports about call volume and hunt group activity within the contact center. Which of the following provides this level of detail?
A. Service Provider Multiplexer statistics
B. PBX call detail records
C. Automatic Call Distribution (ACD) reports
D. CTI server traffic reports
Answer: C

8. The voicemail system is configured to send email alerts when new voicemails are left for users. Users are complaining they are receiving voicemails but stopped receiving email alerts. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the issue?
A. Port 53 is not functioning on the email server.
B. Port 21 is not functioning on the voicemail server.
C. Port 25 is not functioning on the email server.
D. Port 63 is not functioning on the voicemail server.
Answer: C

9. Which of the following is the data rate of a BRI D channel?
A. 16 Kbps
B. 24 Kbps
C. 32 Kbps
D. 64 Kbps
Answer: A

10. All the following are correct about Unified Messaging EXCEPT:
A. a user can setup a voice conference on demand.
B. unified messaging is the integration of e-mail, fax and voicemail.
C. a user can forward their voicemail in form of e-mail.
D. a user can receive a fax in their e-mail.
Answer: A

11. A company is considering a telephony solution for their branch offices that is low-cost, easy to deploy and easy to manage. Which of the following is the BEST reason for the company to investigate SIP?
A. SIP is natively meant for small deployments, yet not scalable for large deployments.
B. SIP is natively standard, and is mature enough not to change.
C. SIP is natively peer-to-peer, needing no infrastructure to run in simple environments.
D. SIP is natively secure, and is not at risk of hacking or denial of service.
Answer: C

12. A technician is rolling out IP softphones in phases to telecommuters. During the pilot and initial production deployment, no problems were noted. But after a major increase in the number of remote users, all CT0-101 dumps callers begin to complain of voice quality issues, while main site users experience no issues. Which of the following should the technician investigate? (Select TWO)
A. Network Address Translation (NAT) configurations
B. Firewall port and CPU utilization
C. IP PBX port and CPU utilization
D. Bandwidth utilization on Internet circuit
E. Softphone QoS settings
Answer: BD

13. Which of the following devices has to be connected to every user of an H. 323 conference?
A. Media Gateway Controller
B. Gatekeeper
C. Terminal
D. Multipoint Control Unit (MCU)
Answer: D

14. Which of the following network topologies would make it possible for a remote site to continue to communicate during a complete main site outage?
A. Frame Relay network
B. Stub network
C. Hub and Spoke network
D. Meshed network
Answer: D

15. Identify the components needed for a softphone end-point: (Select THREE)
A. PC
B. USB drive
C. Analog phone
D. Microphone
E. Sound card
F. Network cable
Answer: ADE

16. A technician is responsible for sending a training video to a potential client for review, the technician must identify this videos ownership without impairing the functionality to the viewers. Which of the following forms of data security is this referred to as?
A. Root Kit
B. Public Key Encryption
C. Content Scramble System (CSS)
D. Watermarking
Answer: D

17. An IP softphone user is complaining of an echo on external calls. Which of the following is MOST likely the cause?
A. Headset speaker is too close to the microphone.
B. Routers are introducing feedback.
C. Sidetones are not being filtered.
D. The soundcard volume is set too low.
Answer: A

18. Which of the following is necessary in order to have internet connectivity to multiple Internet Service Providers (ISP)?
A. BGP-4
B. RIP
C. IS-IS
D. OSPF
Answer: A

19. The mapping of internet service addresses to E. 164 numbering is addressed by:
A. ENUM.
B. SNMP.
C. CDR.
D. SS7.
Answer: A

20. Which are the following are the reasons why the wire pairs in CAT5 cables are twisted? (Select TWO).
A. Twisting eliminates electric interference from adjacent wires.
B. Twisting distributes electric interference evenly to both wires.
C. Twisting provides additional tensile strength to the cable.
D. Twisting eliminates cross-talk between adjacent pairs.
E. Twisting minimizes the contact area of adjacent wires to sources of interference.
Answer: BE

21. Which of the following are enhancements that SNMP v3 provides over previous versions? (Select TWO).
A. Authentication
B. Peer-to-peer support
C. Privacy
D. Multi-vendor MIBs
E. Simplified agents
Answer: AC

22. Which of the following mobility functions provides the BEST way to determine the location and status of a user?
A. Unified messaging
B. RTP
C. Instant messaging
D. SIP Presence
Answer: D

23. Once a company starts planning to use VoIP the company should: (Select TWO).
A. replace the LAN infrastructure.
B. implement a backup system.
C. prepare for an increase in call charges.
D. review the bandwidth in each link.
E. monitor service levels and measure response times.
Answer: DE

24. Which of the following BEST describes the ability for a user to consistently access multiple message types through a single user interface?
A. Voice and Text Integration
B. Computer Telephony integration
C. Unified Messaging
D. Telephone User Interface
Answer: C

25. Which of the following would be the BEST tool to use when a technician is dealing with packet loss and traffic congestion?
A. Network Analyzer
B. Cable Tester
C. Checksum Verifier
D. Traceroute
Answer: A

26. At which of the following layers of the OSI model does VLAN operate?
A. Network layer
B. Data link layer
C. Physical layer
D. Session layer
Answer: B

27. Which of the following features allows a PBX to determine CT0-101 study guide the route an outbound call should follow?
A. Automatic Route Selection (ARS)
B. Routing Information Protocol (RIP)
C. Direct Inward System Access (DISA)
D. Automatic Call Distributor (ACD)
Answer: A

28. Which of the following would be a reason that a customer would need to use STUN in their converged network implementation?
A. The customer has SIP endpoints behind a NAT router.
B. The customer has SIP for both telephony and video conferencing.
C. The customer is using T-1 trunks with a SIP-based media gateway.
D. The customer is using a SIP proxy server.
Answer: A

29. Which of the following occurs at layer 3 of the OSI model, and is used for prioritization?
A. User Datagram Protocol (UDP)
B. Real Time Control Protocol (RTCP)
C. DiffServ
D. 802.1p
Answer: C

30. Which of the following does the Source Port field identify in a datagram using the User Datagram Protocol (UDP)?
A. The port used by the receiver.
B. The port used by the sender.
C. The port to be quenched.
D. The port used by the domain name server (DNS).
Answer: B

4A0-100 Real Exam Questions or Full Refund

1 What is the network layer responsible for?
A. Providing the physical address to the packet.
B. Determining the path to the remote host.
C. Providing reliable communications from host to host.
D. Formatting the PDU.
Answer: B

2 Which of the following are basic router functions? (Choose two.)
A. Perform a Layer 2 header lookup
B. Broadcast a Layer 2 packet to all 4A0-100 the interfaces.
C. IP header examination.
D. Determine the best path to the destination.
Answer: C, D

3 Which ATM adaptation layer is usually used for transporting IP datagrams?
A. AAL1
B. AAL2
C. AAL 3
D. AAL 5
Answer: D

4 Which of the following are data rates defined for Ethernet operation over copper and fiber optic cabling? (Choose three.)
A. 1 Mbps
B. 10 Mbps
C. 1000 Mbps
D. 10,000 Mbps
Answer: B, C, D

5 An Ethernet switch receives a frame addressed to an unknown destination. Assuming the frame is error-free, what will the switch do with the frame?
A. hold it in a buffer until it learns the port on which the destination is located
B. flood the frame out all ports except the source port
C. filter the frame and restrict it only to the source port
D. age out the source address forwarding table entry
Answer: B

6 How does collision detection operate in the CSMA/CD algorithm?
A. It allows multiple hosts to exchange data simultaneously on the same medium
B. It allows multiple hosts to share the same medium by ensuring that only one host can transmit at a time
C. Detects collisions on a full-duplex link
D. A host will only transmit upon receipt of the token
Answer: B

7 The Media Access Control (MAC) sub-layer is responsible for which two functions? (Choose two.)
A. directly interface with the transport layer
B. link integrity testing
C. physical addressing
D. data transmission synchronization
Answer: C, D

8 What is the purpose of carrier sense in the CSMA/CD algorithm?
A. To ensure the host is able to detect an operational physical link before transmitting.
B. The host is able to detect the transmission speed of the Ethernet switch port to which the host is connected
C. The host will only transmit data when it detects that no other devices are transmitting
D. The host will only transmit upon a timer expiry
Answer: C

9 Which statement best describes a Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) root bridge/switch?
A. it is the switch on the network with the lowest bridge priority value
B. it is the switch with the highest numeric Media Access Control (MAC) address
C. it is the only switch on the network through which traffic flows
D. it is responsible for removing duplicate frames from the network
Answer: A

10 An Ethernet switch with redundant links has the following entries in its Forwarding Data Base (FDB):
MAC Address　　　　Port
——————- 　——–
00:60:AC:1F:E0:11 　1
00:F0:DE:12:3C:87 　2
It receives on port 2 a frame with the source Media Access Control (MAC) address 00:60:AC:1F:E0:11, and destination address 00:F0:DE:12:3C:87. What will the switch change in its FDB?
A. it will remove the previous entry for MAC 00:F0:DE:12:3C:87 and replace it with a new one mapping this address to port 1
B. it will set a timer on the previous entry for MAC 00:60:AC:1F:E0:11 and create a new entry mapping this address to port 2
C. replace the previous entry for MAC 00:60:AC:1F:E0:11 with a new one mapping this address to port 2
D. it will create a new entry for MAC address 00:60:AC:1F:E0:11 mapping this address to port 2 and a new entry for MAC address 00:F0:DE:12:3C:87 mapping this address to port 1
Answer: C

11 An 12-port Ethernet switch running the Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) can have how many root ports?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. 12
Answer: A

12 When a Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol (RSTP) switch receives a topology change Bridge Protocol Data Unit (BPDU), how does it propagate this information through the network?
A. it sends it directly to the root switch
B. it floods it throughout the network
C. it forwards it hop-by-hop through the network
D. it forwards it only through its root port
E. it processes the topology change but does not propagate the BPDU
Answer: B

13 Using Q-in-Q Virtual Local Area Network (VLAN) stacking, how does a carrier differentiate one customer’s traffic from that of another?
A. the provider edge (PE) switch adds an additional field called a PE tag to the customer’s Layer 2 data
B. the PE switch replaces the customer’s VLAN tag with a carrier-assigned tag
C. the PE switch adds a second VLAN tag to identify the customer’s traffic on the carrier’s network
D. the PE switch assigns a customer-specific priority label to the customer’s traffic
Answer: C

14 An Ethernet switch is configured to support 4 Virtual Local Area Networks (VLANs). They are configured as follows:
VLAN　　Port
——- ——
101　　 1
101 　　2
102 　　3
102 　　4
103 　　5
103 　　6
104 　　7
104 　　8
The switch receives a broadcast frame on port 7. Which VLAN members will receive this broadcast frame?
A. none
B. 104
C. 103 and 104
D. 101, 102, 103, and 104
Answer: B

15 Which two 7750SR Service Router physical access methods are used to perform Out of Band (OOB) management? (Choose two.)
A. console port
B. management Ethernet port
C. access ports
D. network ports
Answer: A, B

16 Changing which part of the 7750SR basic configuration also 4A0-100 dumps changes the command prompt?
A. default admin password
B. system name
C. hostname
D. admin user name
Answer: B

17 What is NOT a task of the boot options file?
A. Set the CPM Ethernet port speed.
B. Create an IP address for the CPM Ethernet port
C. Set the console port speed
D. Set the date/time for the system
Answer: D

18 The 201.148.26.0 network is subnetted using a /26 mask. How many subnets and host addresses will you obtain with this mask?
A. 4 subnets, 64 hosts
B. 64 subnets, 4 hosts
C. 4 subnets, 62 hosts
D. 6 subnets, 30 hosts
Answer: C

19 What bit pattern identifies the network address in the subnet mask?
A. a string of 1 in the host portion
B. a string of 0 in the host portion
C. a string of 1 in the network portion
D. a string of 0 in the network portion
Answer: C

20 Which of the following is an example of a valid host address?
A. 172.16.224.255/18
B. 255.255.255.255
C. 224.1.2.1
D. 192.168.24.59/30
Answer: A

21 Given the following:
Network address: 190.160.0.0
Network prefix: /19
What are the network and broadcast addresses for the third subnetwork? (Choose two.)
A. 190.160.64.0
B. 190.160.64.255
C. 190.160.95.255
D. 190.160.96.0
Answer: A, C

22 Why don’t classful routing protocols use the first and last subnetworks?
A. classful routing protocols don’t work with binary numbers
B. classful routing protocols only recognize Class C addresses
C. classful routing protocols do not pass routing information to their neighbors
D. classful routing protocols confuse the base network and the all 0 subnet
Answer: D

23 How does Internet Protocol (IP) addressing create a hierarchical network?
A. all hosts on all networks must have unique host numbers
B. IP addresses identify a host and the network on which it resides
C. clients are assigned 32-bit addresses and servers 64-bit addresses
D. routers, switches and hosts addresses are drawn from unique address classes
Answer: B

24 Given a network address of 116.14.0.0, which of the following is a valid host address when using the subnet mask 255.255.255.240?
A. 116.14.17.16
B. 116.14.17.31
C. 116.14.17.192
D. 116.14.17.189
Answer: D

25 Which three of the following are important considerations when designing subnets? (Choose three.)
A. number of subnetworks currently required
B. type of physical connectivity used by each segment
C. future network growth requirements
D. number of hosts each subnetwork will support
Answer: A, C, D

26 You have a class B network with a 255.255.255.0 mask. Which of the 4A0-100 study guide following are true of this network? (Select two)
A. There are 256 usable subnets
B. There are 50 usable subnets
C. There are 254 usable host addresses for each subnet
D. There is one usable subnet
Answer: A, C

27 Given the following:
Network address: 208.40.224.0
Network prefix: /28
What is the address range, including the network (all 0) and broadcast (all 1) addresses, for the fourth sub-network?
A. 208.40.224.0 ?208.40.224.255
B. 208.40.4.0 ?208.40.4.255
C. 208.40.224.16 ?208.40.224.31
D. 208.40.224.48 ?208.40.224.63
Answer: D

28 You want to integrate a new network into an existing IP Wide Area Network. The current network configuration is as follows:
Network address: 208.40.224.0
Network prefix: /27
Number of subnetworks: 6
If Variable Length Subnet Masking (VLSM) is used, what prefix is required to support an additional 7-host LAN segment?
A. /24
B. /27
C. /28
D. /29
E. /30
Answer: C

29 Represent the following address in Classless Interdomain Routing (CIDR) notation:
Network address: 150.220.64.0
Network mask: 255.255.192.0
A. 150.220.64.0/16
B. 150.220.0.0/17
C. 150.220.64.0/18
D. 150.220.0.0/18
Answer: C

30 You have been assigned the CIDR block of 116.65.4.0/22. Which of the following IP addresses could you use as a host? Choose all that apply
A. 116.65.8.32
B. 116.65.7.64
C. 116.65.6.255
D. 116.65.3.255
Answer: B, C

310-065 Real Exam Questions or Full Refund

1. Given:
35. String #name = “Jane Doe”;
36. int $age = 24;
37. Double _height = 123.5;
38. double ~temp = 37.5;
Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. Line 35 will not compile.
B. Line 36 will not compile.
C. Line 37 will not compile.
D. Line 38 will not compile.
Answer: A, D

2. Given:
11. public static Iterator 310-065 reverse(List list) {
12. Collections.reverse(list);
13. return list.iterator();
14. }
15. public static void main(String[] args) {
16. List list = new ArrayList();
17. list.add(“1″); list.add(“2″); list.add(“3″);
18. for (Object obj: reverse(list))
19. System.out.print(obj + “, “);
20. }
What is the result?
A. 3, 2, 1,
B. 1, 2, 3,
C. Compilation fails.
D. The code runs with no output.
E. An exception is thrown at runtime.
Answer: C

3. Given:
5. class A {
6. void foo() throws Exception { throw new Exception(); }
7. }
8. class SubB2 extends A {
9. void foo() { System.out.println(“B “); }
10. }
11. class Tester {
12. public static void main(String[] args) {
13. A a = new SubB2();
14. a.foo();
15. }
16. }
What is the result?
A. B
B. B, followed by an Exception.
C. Compilation fails due to an error on line 9.
D. Compilation fails due to an error on line 14.
E. An Exception is thrown with no other output.
Answer: D

4. Given:
1. public class TestString3 {
2. public static void main(String[] args) {
3. // insert code here
5. System.out.println(s);
6. }
7. }
Which two code fragments, inserted independently at line 3, generate the output 4247? (Choose two.)
A. String s = “123456789″;
s = (s-”123″).replace(1,3,”24″) – “89″;
B. StringBuffer s = new StringBuffer(“123456789″);
s.delete(0,3).replace(1,3,”24″).delete(4,6);
C. StringBuffer s = new StringBuffer(“123456789″);
s.substring(3,6).delete(1,3).insert(1, “24″);
D. StringBuilder s = new StringBuilder(“123456789″);
s.substring(3,6).delete(1,2).insert(1, “24″);
E. StringBuilder s = new StringBuilder(“123456789″);
s.delete(0,3).delete(1,3).delete(2,5).insert(1, “24″);
Answer: B, E

5. Given:
10. import java.io.*;
11. class Animal {
12. Animal() { System.out.print(“a”); }
13. }
14. class Dog extends Animal implements Serializable {
15. Dog() { System.out.print(“d”); }
16. }
17. public class Beagle extends Dog { }
If an instance of class Beagle is created, then 310-065 dumps Serialized, then deSerialized, what is the result?
A. ad
B. ada
C. add
D. adad
E. Compilation fails.
F. An exception is thrown at runtime.
Answer: B

6. Given:
1. public class LineUp {
2. public static void main(String[] args) {
3. double d = 12.345;
4. // insert code here
5. }
6. }
Which code fragment, inserted at line 4, produces the output | 12.345|?
A. System.out.printf(“|%7d| \n”, d);
B. System.out.printf(“|%7f| \n”, d);
C. System.out.printf(“|%3.7d| \n”, d);
D. System.out.printf(“|%3.7f| \n”, d);
E. System.out.printf(“|%7.3d| \n”, d);
F. System.out.printf(“|%7.3f| \n”, d);
Answer: F

7. Which three will compile and run without exception? (Choose three.)
A. private synchronized Object o;
B. void go() {
synchronized() { /* code here */ }
}
C. public synchronized void go() { /* code here */ }
D. private synchronized(this) void go() { /* code here */ }
E. void go() {
synchronized(Object.class) { /* code here */ }
}
F. void go() {
synchronized(Object.class) { /* code here */ }
}
Answer: C, E, F

8. A team of programmers is reviewing a proposed API for a new utility class. After some discussion, they realize that they can reduce the number of methods in the API without losing any functionality.
If they implement the new design, which two OO principles will they be promoting?
A. Looser coupling
B. Tighter coupling
C. Lower cohesion
D. Higher cohesion
E. Weaker encapsulation
F. Stronger encapsulation
Answer: A

9. Given:
2. public class Hi {
3. void m1() { }
4. protected void() m2 { }
5. }
6. class Lois extends Hi {
7. // insert code here
8. }
Which four code fragments, inserted independently at line 7, will compile? (Choose four.)
A. public void m1() { }
B. protected void m1() { }
C. private void m1() { }
D. void m2() { }
E. public void m2() { }
F. protected void m2() { }
G. private void m2() { }
Answer: A, B, E, F

10. Given:
1. import java.util.*;
2. public class 310-065 study guide Example {
3. public static void main(String[] args) {
4. // insert code here
5. set.add(new Integer(2));
6. set.add(new Integer(1));
7. System.out.println(set);
8. }
9. }
Which code, inserted at line 4, guarantees that this program will output [1, 2]?
A. Set set = new TreeSet();
B. Set set = new HashSet();
C. Set set = new SortedSet();
D. List set = new SortedList();
E. Set set = new LinkedHashSet();
Answer: A

200-500 Real Exam Questions or Full Refund

1. You work for a shared hosting provider, and your supervisor asks you to disable user scripts to dynamically load PHP extensions using the dl() function. How can you do this? (Choose 2)
A. Set enable_dl to Off in the server’s php.ini configuration file.
B. Add dl to the current value of disable_functions in the server’s php.ini configuration file.
C. Add dl to the current value of disable_classes in the server’s php.ini configuration file.
D. Write a custom function called dl(), save it under the name prepend.inc and then set the auto_prepend_file directive to prepend.inc in php.ini.
Answer: AB

2. Which of the following 200-500 statements is NOT true?
a) Class constants are public
b) Class constants are being inherited
c) Class constants can omit initialization (default to NULL)
d) Class constants can be initialized by consts
A. a)
B. b)
C. c)
D. d)
Answer: C

3. Type hinting in PHP allows the identification of the following variable types: (Choose 2)
A. String
B. Integer
C. Array
D. Any class or interface type
Answer: CD

4. How many elements does the $matches array contain after the following function call is performed?
preg_match(‘/^(\d{1,2}([a-z]+))(?:\s*)\S+ (?=200[0-9])/’, ’21st March 2006′, $matches);
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: C

5. Given the following code, what will be the value of $a?
$a = array(‘a’, ‘b’);
array_push($a, array(1, 2));
A. array(‘a’, ‘b’, 1, 2)
B. array(1, 2, ‘a’, ‘b’)
C. array(array(1, 2), ‘a’, ‘b’)
D. None of the above
Answer: D

6. Which of the following filtering techniques prevents cross-site scripting (XSS) vulnerabilities?
A. Strip all occurrences of the string script.
B. Strip all occurrences of the string javascript.
C. Enable magic_quotes_gpc.
D. None of the above.
Answer: D

7. Identify the security vulnerability in the following example:
1
A. SQL Injection
B. Cross-Site Scripting
C. Remote Code Injection
D. None of the above
Answer: B

8. How many times will the function counter() be executed in the following code?
function counter($start, &$stop)
{
if ($stop > $start)
{
return;
}
counter($start–, ++$stop);
}
$start = 5;
$stop = 2;
counter($start, $stop);
A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6
Answer: C

9. When a class is defined as final it:
A. Can no longer be extended by other classes.
B. Means methods in the class are not over-loadable.
C. Cannot be defined as such, final is only applicable to 200-500 dumps object methods.
D. Is no longer iteratable.
Answer: A

10. Which parts of the text are matched in the following regular expression?
1 <?php
2 $text = <<
A. bang bong bung
B. bang bonged bung
C. big bang bong bung
D. big bang bung
Answer: C

11. Which of the following can be registered as entry points with a SoapServer instance (choose 3):
A. A single function
B. A single method from a class
C. Multiple functions at once
D. All methods from a class
E. All classes defined in a script
Answer: ACD

12. What DOMElement method should be used to check for availability of a
non-namespaced attribute?
A. getAttributeNS()
B. getAttribute()
C. hasAttribute()
D. hasAttributeNS()
Answer: C

13. Which of the following data types is implicitly passed by reference in PHP 5 while it is passed by value in PHP 4?
A. Class
B. String
C. Object
D. Array
Answer: C

14. What is the content of $c after the following code has executed?
$a = 2;
$b = 3;
$c = ($a++ * ++$b);
A. 0
B. 5
C. 8
D. 4
Answer:C

15. Which options do you have in PHP to set the expiry date of a session?
A. Set the session.duration directive in php.ini
B. Set session cookie expiry date locally via session_set_cookie_params()
C. Set session expiry date locally via session_cache_expire()
D. None of the above
Answer: D

16. A script residing at http://example.com/phpcert/cookies.php contains the following code:
1
The web browser is configured to accept all cookies. How many cookies will be
set by this script?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
Answer: C

17. You analyze the code of a collegue and see, it uses the function strcasecmp. You try it out to see what it does and use the following function call:
strcasecmp(‘hello my dear!’, ‘Hello my DEAR!’);
The function call returns “0″. What does that mean?
A. String 1 is less than string 2.
B. The strings are considered equal.
C. String 2 is less than string 1.
D. The strings have equal length.
Answer: B

18. What is the output of the following script?
1 val;
11 }
12 }
13
14 renderVal (null);
15 ?>
A. A syntax error in the function declaration line
B. An error, because null is not an instance of ‘a’
C. Nothing, because a null value is being passed to renderVal()
D. NULL
Answer: B

19. REST is a(n) …
A. Web service protocol similar to SOAP with a strict XML 200-500 study guide schema.
B. Principle to exchange information using XML and HTTP.
C. API to get information from social networking sites.
Answer: B

20. What is the output of the following code?
echo 0×33, ‘ monkeys sit on ‘, 011, ‘ trees.’;
A. 33 monkeys sit on 11 trees.
B. 51 monkeys sit on 9 trees.
C. monkeys sit on trees.
D. 0×33 monkeys sit on 011 trees.
Answer: B

1K0-002 Real Exam Questions or Full Refund

1. Which of the following describes audio analog clipping?
A.A distorted signal voltage from a microphone after passing through an amplifier with excessive gain applied.
B.An accurate signal voltage from a microphone after passing through an amplifier without any gain applied.
C.Audio amplifiers with too high an impedance.
D.A clean signal passed through an Audio amplifier with excessive AC line voltage.
Answer: A

2. High Definition Video is best described as
A.Video Signal that consists of luminance 1K0-002 scan interlaced lines.
B.Video Signal made up of 8X8 blocks of pixels.
C.Video signal that represents 720 lines of pixels, progressively scanned.
D.Video Signal made up of 40X40 macroblocks pixels.
Answer: C

3. The term “Full Motion Video” typically refers to a transmission of video at which rate?
A.Video Frames at a rate of less than 10 per second
B.Video Frames at a rate of greater than 100 per second
C.Video Frames at a rate of less than 24 per second
D.Video Frames at a rate of 24 or more per second
Answer: D

4. What are two other names for a Frame Relay Network?
A.RS-232
B.V.35
C.Broadband
D.Virtual Private Network
E.802.3 Medium Access Control Network
Answer: CD

5. Multiplexers using HSD interfaces are DCE Interfaces that provide which three signals?
A.Transmit Data
B.Receive Data
C.Request to Send
D.Data Carrier Detect (RLSD)
E.TX Clock and TX Data
F.TX Clock and RX Clock
Answer: BDF

6. Which of the following is Line Coding used for Primary Rate T1?
A.BRTZ-AMI
B.B7S
C.HDB3
D.B8ZS
E.Pulse Stuffing
Answer: D

7. Local Area Network Metallic Interfaces are
A.connection oriented, point to point connectivity only.
B.unshared network that serves unlimited endpoints.
C.connectionless oriented connectivity, shared network that serves limited distances.
D.connectionless oriented connectivity, shared network that serves unlimited distances.
E.C and D
F.All of the above
Answer: C

8. E1 framing has a bit structure of how many bits per frame?
Clue Full metallic E1 speed divided by 8KHz Stratum timing.
A.200
B.240
C.256
D.300
Answer: C

9. Which of the following describes the activity for which a RTCP is used?
A.Transport Task for Communication of Audio and Video over IP
B.Transport Task of Simple Network Management Protocol
C.Network Statistics of Media Channels between Videoconferencing Hardware
D.Network Statistics of Media Channels between Routers
E.Network Statistics of Media Channels between Gatekeepers
Answer: C

10. Which of the following are Call Establishment packets? (Select three of the following options.)
A.Receiver Ready
B.Disconnect Request
C.Release Request
D.Setup
E.Connect Acknowledged
F.Receiver Not Ready
G.Alerting
H.Release Complete
Answer: DEG

11. Which of the following is the Protocol RAS used by the H.323 Gatekeeper?
A.Registration, Alerting, and Status of H.323 Terminals
B.Registration, Access, and Status of H.323 Terminals
C.Registration, Activation, and Status of H.323 Terminals
D.Registration, Admission, and Status of H.323 Terminals
Answer: D

12. Which of the following is the channel used to carry the Audio for H.320 Terminals?
A.Channel 6
B.Channel 4
C.Channel 3
D.Channel 2
E.Channel 1
Answer: E

13. Which audio coding standards are described by H.323?
A.G.711, G.721, G.722, and G.723
B.G.711, G.722, G.728, and G.726
C.G.711, G.722, G.728, G.723.1, and G.729
D.G.711, G.722, G.728, and G.723.1
Answer: C

14. Which audio coding 1K0-002 dumps uses 8 Kbps?
A.G.711
B.G.722
C.G.729
D.G.728
E.G.722.1
Answer: C

15. A telephone call over the Public Switched Telephone Network is what type of quality?
A.Narrow band audio
B.Center band audio
C.Wide band audio
D.CD quality audio
Answer: A

16. How is noise measured?
A.Volume
B.Distance
C.Amplitude
D.Impedance
Answer: AC

17. Pick the best match; Audio “Critical Distance” is a definition that relates to:
A.Distance between the audio amplifier inputs and room microphone
B.Distance between the person speaking and the microphone used
C.Distance between the video display monitor and camera
D.Distance between the walls, floor to ceiling, and doorways
Answer: B

18. When required, improperly matched impedance will cause problems with__________.
A.Audio signal levels
B.feedback frequency filtering
C.room acoustics
D.all of the above
Answer: A

19. Which of the following correctly describes typical audio phantom power?
A.48 volts DC applied to a telephone circuit center pair used to provide power to the telephone set
B.12 volts DC applied to the tip and ring of a TRS connector used to power amplified headphones
C.A DC voltage applied to the center pin of an RCA type connector used to power remote pre-amplifiers
D.A DC voltage applied to pins 2 and 3 of an XLR connector returning through pin 1, used to power microphones
Answer: D

20. Which of the following functions can NOT be performed by a microphone mixer?
A. Provide phantom power to microphones.
B. Provide gain to convert mic-level signals to line-level signals.
C. Provide a means to adjust the relative gain of different microphones.
D. Provide a means to adjust the video display brightness.
E. Provide a means to adjust the room acoustics
Answer: DE

21. What does Automatic Gain Control (AGC) do?
A.It turns up the volume to the far-end microphone.
B.It selects among multiple microphones.
C.It turns down the volume to the far-end microphone.
D.It builds the volume to the near-end microphone.
Answer: D

22. Which of the following correctly describes reverberation and echo?
A.Echo is a coherent, distinct carry-on of sound.
B.Reverberation is irrelevant to conferencing audio.
C.Reverberation is long, distinct, acoustic reflections.
D.Reverberation is an incoherent, diffuse, carry-on of sound
E.Echo is short, diffuse, acoustic reflections that linger after the original sound has stopped.
Answer: AD

23. Which of the following devices is used to change Sound Energy into Electrical Energy for the purpose of the Far-End audience to hear the Near -End audience?
A.Mixer
B.Desk top microphone
C.Loud speaker
D.Sound pressure meter
Answer: B

24. A mic-level audio signal will measure as
A.10 kiloVolt.
B.10 miliVolt.
C.10 gigaVolt.
D.10 Watt.
E.10 Amp.
Answer: B

25. Muting an audio during a connected videoconference is typically performed when you
A.need to move the microphone.
B.do not want to hear the other parties.
C.need to move conference table.
D.are listening and your room is very noisy.
E.need to hang up the video call.
Answer: ACD

26. During a H.323 Videoconference, what is the correct bandwidth used by the G.711 and G.722 audio algorithms in a 256K conference call?
A.30,000 bits per second
B.40,000 bits per second
C.128,000 bits per second
D.64,000 bits per second
Answer: D

27. What is the audio data rate in bits per second that a G.723.1 and G.729 audio algorithms 1K0-002 study guide that use over a network connection?
A.greater than 64,000
B.greater than 16,000
C.less than 5,000
D.less than 10,000
Answer: D

28. What is the correct frequency response for the G.711 audio algorithm?
A.50Hz to 3.4kHz
B.50Hz to 7kHz
C.300Hz to 3.4kHz
D.300Hz to 7kHz
Answer: C

29. Line level audio cables are being connected. Which of the following represents the electrical requirements that should be followed during the cable connection?
A.Power should be turned off, and connector cables should be installed from the output of one device to the output of the next device
B.Power should be turned off, and the connector cables should be installed from the output of one device to the input of the next device
C.Power is not important and Cables can be connected without regard to the Connector labels
D.Power is not important and Cables should only be connected to connectors labeled “Audio OUT”
Answer: B

30. Which of the following statements about line-level and mic-level are true?
A.Audio mixers can be connected into a line-level input.
B.Line-level or mic-level can be used for any audio input device.
C.Line-level and mic-level always have different impedance values.
D.Voltage ranges are not the same between line-level and mic-level.
Answer: AD